Kevin, you’ll remember that I asked you a while back about Charles Mills. You didn’t really answer the question I was trying to ask , but looking back, it’s entirely my fault for not phrasing it the way I wanted to (although your answer was informative in other ways.) So, here’s another attempt.
And yes, I’m procrastinating on an assignment that isn’t even difficult. Or long.
Basically, what I’m trying to get at is that classical liberalism, contra your criticism, is capable of considering all people (at least, I don’t see many instances where it can’t.) You said here (regarding a different, though highly related topic,) that “that’s a sweeping metaphysical statement, because the “subject” of your theory is male, but you purport it to universalizable. For example, try saying that statement with various family formations as part of your subject, instead of just one lone male. You’ll notice that it doesn’t work very well.”
I’m assuming you’re saying the same thing about classical liberalism, and I disagree. It’s entirely true that classical liberalism (and I) don’t see the need to look closely at each individual person/group and start over with ethical theory. However, I think that it/I doesn’t have to do so, because the personhood that it uses as the basis of its philosophy is almost always so significant and so foundational that other aspects of each person can’t (or can only rarely) override the results that come from beginning with personhood only. (I hope I’m making myself clear. If not, say so.)
Put another way, liberalism doesn’t “abstract away” from various contingencies of subjects (to use Mills’s phrasing); it merely recognizes that such things are rarely important enough to affect the analysis. In this way, it’s not like Rawls, who requires that imaginary beings be stripped of all non-personhood-y traits, or like Kant, who requires you to ignore them as a basis for action. You said (somewhere) that liberalism’s subject “doesn’t exist.” It does; it’s pretty much every subject who exists.
So, basically, I think classical liberalism can be formulated “ideally.”* It’s not a problem, because taking various contingencies into account wouldn’t change the outcome (also, isn’t reinventing the wheel every time you do political philosophy sort of…time-wasting, if not impossible?) It doesn’t assume “what kind of subjects you’ll be dealing with” (paraphrased); it just acknowledges that they are subjects.
Take the example you provided: a mother with a family. I don’t think basing treatment of children on rights and personhood is appropriate, or that liberalism applies to them (I was planning on doing a post on this soon.) So, let’s just take a couple of parents supporting more mature children (say, just below the age of maturity.) Let’s add a couple of contingencies that the Left likes: they’re poor and black(say, can afford rent, food, all that, with a bit left over, but not much. Oh, and their ancestors were Southern slaves.) My question for you is, how do these contingencies invalidate, or even affect, classical liberalism? I hope I’ve made it clear what problems I have with yours and Mills’s argument.
*I came up with this mediocre-to-all-right pun: since you oppose ideal theory and the Enlightenment, I praise your ideas as “far from ideal, and ruthlessly unenlightened.” I’ve never actually gotten a chance to use it in conversation and probably never will, so here it is. Enjoy.
Filed under: Jake Anderson , Charles Mills, classical liberalism, gender, libertarianism, race
